My girlfriend of 14 months recently became very sick, we went to the emergency room, she was diagnosed with an initial outbreak of Herpes. The ER Dr. indicated that she was probably infected within the last 30 days. Based on the location of the outbreak it was assumed that it had been aquired via oral sex. This diagnosis was consistent with our sex life. I was devastated as she believed that I must have given her the disease and I had no idea I was a carrier. I have had a cold sore before so I assumed that I must have been the carrier. She was angry with me, for the obvious reason, and I felt horribly guilty. She received her test results this week that she in fact did have the Simplex 1 in the genital area.

I also went to the doctor, just to confirm that I had in fact given this to her. The blood tests confirmed that I have never been exposed to Herpes, neither one or two. Now I am incredibly confused. The early scenario of how she was infected was plausable, now I do not know what to believe. If she was infected in the last 30 days, I obviously have a serious problem since I am not a carrier. Can this virus just show up, years after the infection? If she had it and we have been having unprotected sex for over a year would I also not have it by now? With one infected partner, and one not infected partner, are condoms needed at all times to ensure the disease is not transferred? We recently moved in together, before that we did not live in the same city; I never suspected her of cheating but based on the ER Doctors original diagnosis, now I am faced with the possibility that this was recently aquired. Any help on this virus, and how the initial outbreak occurs, would be greatly appreciated.

D