Oral to Genital?
I know I am probably not going to get the peace of mind that I am needing but I need to throw this out here for any type of thoughts you guys may have.
I am a 38 year old happily married woman with 4 children. All my life even as a young child I have had numerous outbreaks of canker sores in my mouth, lips, and throat. I usually get them at least once a month on a regular basis. I have had mono twice. The doctor's have never been able to do anything about them.......I just let them run their course with no treatment.
I have never, ever had any sores in the genital area. 3 days ago I felt some burning in the vaginal area and it hurt to urinate and I thought I was getting a bladder infection and/or yeast infection. 2 days ago I felt a "lump" in the vaginal area and looked with a mirror and to my horror saw 3 open sores that looked just like canker sores that I get in my mouth. I work in an OB-GYN office so yesterday I had one of the doctor's check it out and she had no doubt that it was Genital Herpes. Classic look and symptoms. She did do a culture and I had blood work done for HSV1 & HSV2 IGG and IGM. I don't have any of those results back yet.
My mind is going crazy!! I have a current outbreak of cankers in my mouth and in the genital area. The doctor told me that there was a very SLIM chance that I could have touched my mouth and then the genitals to pass it on. I have read online that there really is a 20% chance that this could happen but what is so frustrating to me is that HSV1 would be the sores in my mouth and then if I passed it on below then it would be HSV2. Will I ever know for sure if this was passed on by ME?
My husband and I have been together for 20 years. We both did have other partners BEFORE we were married and I have not slept with anyone but him in 20 years and I truly cannot imagine that he has had another partner in our marriage. Not saying that is isn't possible but I am pretty much 100% in the belief that he has not had an affair. Can a herpes virus lay dormant for that long? (over 20 years?) I highly doubt it but I need to ask. My OB-GYN says "No."
How do I deal with this? How do I even approach my husband about this? Will I ever truly know if this was caused by myself or him? I just need someone to respond as my mind is going crazy. Does this also mean that we need to use condoms now with intercourse and that I will always have genital herpes? I just can't believe this is happening.
Also.......will having my husband to a blood test show anything?
Any insight is appreciated. Thanks.
User login
Navigation
Syndicate
Comments
HSV1, is still HSV1 on your
HSV1, is still HSV1 on your genitals, but you could have always had HSV2 on your lips. So if you did in fact have HSV1 on your lips and spread it to your genitals you would have HSV1 on your genitals.
If it is HSV1 down there, I have read it is milder then HSV2 is down there as HSV1 prefers the mouth/lips and hsv2 the genitals.
Tell your hubby and yes condoms if he doesnt want it
hmmm
Very weird... But Yes if you had HSV1 upstairs and if down there you in fact have herpes it would b HSV1 as well.
Definitely have you husband test himself wh type specific blood tests. As for your other question I heard that it is possible for the virus to lay dormant for many years. Oh one more thing... HSV1 can be passed on to genital area via oral sex ...
Oral to genital to genital or oral to oral to genital
Yea you may have intimately kissed him, passed on oral herpes to him and then he gave you oral OR you could have given him oral and then he had intercourse with you passing it on that way. I hope this all sorts out for you...